the_dunk_tank
It's the dunk tank.
This is where you come to post big-brained hot takes by chuds, libs, or even fellow leftists, and tear them to itty-bitty pieces with precision dunkstrikes.
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Okay but even if we operate within the constraints of this framework, we have to ask some questions. Firstly, why does India not simply mechanise their agriculture while continuing to pay comparatively low wages, as such would result in higher profit than continuing to use non mechanised agriculture? Secondly, in such a case as illustrated in the first question, wouldn't a ton of agricultural production move to India to maximise profits? Lastly, given that neither of the above has happened, with the distribution of agricultural technology being what it is, and the division of labour that results from that, we have to ask if this is compatible with equal exchange?
The wages are often too low to make it cost effective to mechanize. Also, you have to keep in mind that India is not a rationally planned economy. India as a whole would enormously benefit from mechanization of agriculture, but capitalists and landowners have different interests.
I agree that intellectual property law is creating unequal exchanges, but I suspect that this is still quite a small effect relative to the total global economy. I welcome an investigation into that.
From a review of a recent book on copyright law
That is a lower bound though, since they also make enormous amounts of money from using the intellectual property to not have competitors. Still is pretty small in the scale of the whole economy, I would expect.